tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4325570063154994968.post6524883791124055629..comments2023-06-23T06:29:42.841-04:00Comments on True Free Grace: 73) Believers belong to Christbluejazzyhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03008008466362515438noreply@blogger.comBlogger4125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4325570063154994968.post-82218107653536609442009-11-02T19:11:52.758-05:002009-11-02T19:11:52.758-05:00Mark,
That is certainly a good point. I do think ...Mark,<br />That is certainly a good point. I do think Jesus satisfied the Law Covenant, but as you say that only proved he was righteous. I am not set in stone on this point.<br />waynejazzycathttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16720471765591930568noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4325570063154994968.post-38901557049550685722009-11-02T13:15:50.343-05:002009-11-02T13:15:50.343-05:00Does Romans 5:19 speak of His whole life of obedie...Does Romans 5:19 speak of His whole life of obedience or is it there speaking of His obedience in going to the cross?<br /><br />I see it that what is imputed to our account was His "proven righteousness". I'm afraid that the centrality of the cross, the penal substitution that took place on it, tends to get lost in the other view, for it is made to share center-stage with His active obedience. At any rate the active obedience schema has very weak support from scripture, IMHO.mark piersonhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13882538938829765324noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4325570063154994968.post-57185554917222324982009-11-02T08:21:02.641-05:002009-11-02T08:21:02.641-05:00Mark,
That is a good question. Gal. 4:4 tells us ...Mark,<br />That is a good question. Gal. 4:4 tells us that Jesus was born of woman under law to redeem those born under law and Romans 5:19 tells us that by Jesus' obedience the many will be made righteous. <br /><br />I think our redeemer had to be fully God and fully man [born of woman]. He also had to perfectly obey the law on our behalf so that we would have access [by faith] to his righteousness that he had while under law and in human form. This way he paid the penalty for our unrighteousness on the cross and provided us with his righteousness while under law. <br /><br />I am not sure which of the two you mention is more correct? What do you think?jazzycathttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16720471765591930568noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4325570063154994968.post-14743098689078507662009-11-01T18:14:15.272-05:002009-11-01T18:14:15.272-05:00Wayne,
What was the purpose of the law in Christ&#...Wayne,<br />What was the purpose of the law in Christ's walk on earth? Did He have to obey it to secure our righteousness or rather did the law prove that He WAS righteous - and THAT was the righteousness that was put to our account? Your thoughts???mark piersonhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13882538938829765324noreply@blogger.com